2026 Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Unparalleled Latest Exam Questions Pass Guaranteed Quiz
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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 Exam Sample Questions (Q174-Q179):
NEW QUESTION # 174
A couple is diagnosed with primary infertility secondary to azoospermia. They are not interested in in vitro fertilization techniques, so you recommend insemination with a sperm donor. The male partner is hesitant. He thinks he might have difficulty accepting raising a child who is not biologically his. Which one of the following is the best next step?
- A. Arranging a consultation with a psychologist
- B. Tell the couple adoption is a better option
- C. Propose a trial of ovulation induction with gonadotropins
- D. Recommend that the donor be a person who is known and significant to the couple
- E. Suggest transfer of care to another physician
Answer: A
Explanation:
When couples face infertility-related decisions-particularly involving donor insemination-psychosocial counseling is essential. A mental health consultation helps explore emotional concerns, expectations, and readiness for non-biological parenting.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, "Infertility and ART":
"Psychological counseling is recommended for couples considering donor gametes to address emotional, ethical, and identity issues before proceeding." MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > Reproductive Ethics > 83-1):
"Candidates must understand the ethical and psychosocial considerations of assisted reproductive techniques and provide appropriate referrals." Suggesting adoption or switching care dismisses valid concerns (B, C). Ovulation induction (D) does not address azoospermia.
NEW QUESTION # 175
A 94-year-old woman with severe dementia is referred for vaginal bleeding and a persistent foul odour from the vagina. She lives in a long-term care facility. She has been using a ring pessary for the past 15 years. Her current pessary has not been replaced in 2 years. On examination, there is moderate vaginal atrophy. After removing the pessary, which one of the following is the best next step?
- A. Prescribe vaginal metronidazole gel.
- B. Start vaginal estrogen.
- C. Perform a vaginal biopsy.
- D. Arrange for a hysteroscopy and endometrial biopsy.
- E. Wash the pessary and recommend a daily saline douche.
Answer: B
Explanation:
In elderly women with long-term pessary use and signs of vaginal atrophy (thin epithelium, bleeding, odor), local estrogen is the most appropriate initial treatment to restore the vaginal epithelium and reduce inflammation and discharge. Vaginal estrogen improves mucosal integrity and reduces complications like ulceration, infection, and bleeding.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, "Pelvic Organ Prolapse and Pessary Care" Section:
"Local vaginal estrogen therapy is recommended for postmenopausal women with vaginal atrophy who are using pessaries. It reduces the risk of erosions, bleeding, and infection, especially when pessary follow-up has been suboptimal." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics and Gynecology > 82-9: Vaginal Bleeding in Postmenopausal Women):
"Candidates should recognize vaginal atrophy as a common and treatable cause of bleeding in elderly women using pessaries." A biopsy (E) may be needed if symptoms persist after atrophy is treated. Hysteroscopy (A) is invasive and not first-line in this setting. Metronidazole (B) is not indicated without evidence of bacterial vaginosis. Daily saline douching (D) is not recommended and may irritate atrophic mucosa.
NEW QUESTION # 176
A mother brings her previously healthy 4-month-old girl for evaluation due to fussiness for 3 weeks. The infant becomes irritable and cries with occasional body arching 1-2 hours after feeding, frequently spits up after feeds, has developed feeding aversion, and shows slowing weight gain. She has been on cow's milk- based formula since birth. Stools are normal, and physical examination is unremarkable. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Gastroesophageal reflux disease.
- B. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis.
- C. Celiac disease.
- D. Peptic ulcer.
- E. Intermittent intussusception.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 177
A 12-year-old boy initially presents with a 4-month history of left knee pain. He denies any obvious history of trauma, but he plays basketball frequently and notes his pain is worse after playing. On physical examination the patient has a prominent tibial tubercle, which is swollen and tender. There is full range of motion in the knee. A radiograph of the left knee reveals an ossicle anterior to the tibial tuberosity. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Osteosarcoma
- B. Chondromalacia patellae
- C. Patellar tendinitis
- D. Osgood-Schlatter disease
- E. Osteomyelitis
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Osgood-Schlatter disease is a traction apophysitis of the tibial tubercle due to repetitive stress from the quadriceps during growth. It is common in active adolescents and presents with a tender, prominent tibial tuberosity and typical radiographic findings.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics / MSK:
"Osgood-Schlatter disease presents with localized pain at the tibial tuberosity in adolescents involved in sports. X-ray may show ossicle or fragmentation." MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 78-2: MSK Injuries and Overuse):
"Candidates must identify overuse syndromes like Osgood-Schlatter and distinguish from infections or malignancy." Osteomyelitis (A) is systemic. Osteosarcoma (B) causes deep pain, often at night. Chondromalacia (C) affects anterior knee and worsens with stairs. Patellar tendinitis (D) affects the inferior pole of patella, not tibial tubercle.
NEW QUESTION # 178
There are many expenses which are considered part of providing care to patients. Under Canadian legislation, which one of the following is an acceptable means of covering these costs?
- A. Collecting fees from patients who are seen after hours.
- B. Collecting fees from patients for uninsured services provided.
- C. Offering rapid access to insured services for a fee.
- D. Collecting fees from patients for home visits.
- E. Collecting annual fees from patients to supplement fees disbursed by the public payer for insured services.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Physicians in Canada may charge patients for uninsured services (e.g., completion of forms, cosmetic procedures, some travel-related vaccines), but they may not charge extra for insured services or preferential access. Doing so violates the Canada Health Act, which mandates accessibility and universality of insured services.
Toronto Notes 2023 - ELOM, Health Care System:
"Physicians may charge for uninsured services but may not charge block fees for insured services, nor can they charge for expedited access to insured services." MCCQE1 Objectives - ELOM > Health Policy and System:
"Candidates must recognize practices that violate the principles of publicly funded health care, including charging for insured services or access premiums." Option A is not permitted under law. Options B, D, and E involve insured services (e.g., home visits, after- hours care) and cannot be billed directly to patients.
NEW QUESTION # 179
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